Social Studies & Religious Education Questions and Answers - Class 8 Mid Term Exams Term 1 2023 Set 1

PS
Study the map of Wema area and answer questions 1 to 7.

1. The feature formed along river Rubo at the point marked x is
   
   1. a confluence.
   2. an ox-bow lake.
   3. a delta.
   4. a meander.
2. The climate around lake Peto can be described as
   
   1. cool and dry. 
   2. hot and dry.
   3. hot and wet.
   4. cool and wet.
3. People who live in Dege village are likely to suffer from
   
   1. water-borne diseases.
   2. frequent droughts.
   3. acute soil erosion.
   4. seasonal flooding.
4. The settlement pattern in Wema area can be described as
   
   1. clustered.
   2. linear.
   3. dense.
   4. sparse.
5. The main economic benefit of lake Peto is that it is a
   
   1. source of rainfall.
   2. source of sand.
   3. source of fish.
   4. tourist attraction site.
6. Which one of the following economic activities is not carried out in Wema area?
   1. Fishing.
   2. Crop farming.
   3. Trading.
   4. Mining.
7. Land in Wema area rises towards
   
   1. north east.
   2. north west.
   3. south east.
   4. south west.
8. The main reason why the San people did not develop strong political systems was that
   
   1. they were few in numbers.
   2. they lived in a dry area.
   3. there was no centralized source of power.
   4. they were frequently attacked by other communities.
9. Three of the following statements about a school routine are true. Which one is not? It
   1. outlines the school rules.
   2. is prepared by the deputy head teacher. 
   3. allocates time for school activities.
   4. ensures proper use of time.
10. In Kenya, sisal is grown in large plantations in
    
    1. Mwea in Kirinyaga.
    2. Ahero in Kisumu.
    3. Vipingo in Kilifi.
    4. Mumias in Kakamega.
11. Below are descriptions of a mineral mined in Kenya:
    
    1. It is white in colour.
    2. It is mined in the floor of the Rift Valley. 
    3. It is used in making heat insulators.
       The mineral described above is
       1. diatomite.
       2. soda ash.
       3. limestone.
       4. fluorspar.

Use the map of Africa below to answer questions 12 to 15.

12. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the climate of the shaded areas marked Y?
    
    1. Annual rainfall is less than 250mm.
    2. The area has rainfall throughout the year. 
    3. The area has cool and wet climate.
    4. The area has equatorial climate.
13. The main reason for the construction of the dam marked Z was to
    
    1. control flooding along the river.
    2. create an inland waterway.
    3. store water for irrigation.
    4. generate electricity.
14. The country marked T was colonized by
    
    1. France.
    2. Italy.
    3. Germany.
    4. Spain.
15. Which one of the following is the effect of the ocean currents marked R? They
    
    1. cause fog and mist.
    2. cause dry conditions.
    3. bring rainfall to the Congo basin.
    4. mark the start of the dry season.
16. The main reason why the Nandi people fought the British during the colonial period in Kenya was that the
    
    1. British were building a railway line.
    2. British stopped them from trading.
    3. Nandi wanted to retain their independence.
    4. Nandi had strong leaders.
17. The following are descriptions of a vegetation zone in Africa:
    1. Trees are tall and evergreen.
    2. Trees grow close together.
    3. There is little undergrowth.
       The vegetation zone described above is
       
       1. savannah vegetation.
       2. rainforest vegetation.
       3. mediterranean vegetation.
       4. temperate vegetation.
18. The community that correctly fills the blank space marked K is
    
    
    1. Serer
    2. Mossi
    3. Dagomba
    4. Gwima.
19. Which one of the following is a measure taken to conserve wildlife in Africa?
    
    1. Building hotels near game parks.
    2. Fencing game parks.
    3. Advertising tourist attraction sites.
    4. Reducing entry fee to game parks.
20. King Lewanika collaborated with the British because he wanted to
    
    1. trade with the British.
    2. learn the European way of life.
    3. be protected from hostile neighbours.
    4. be employed by the British.
21. Mount Marsabit and mount Meru were formed when
    
    1. land between faults was uplifted.
    2. soft parts of the earth were eroded. C
    3. underneath rocks were folded.
    4. molten magma solidified on the surface. 
22. Which one of the following statements describes a customary marriage?
    
    1. It is conducted by clan elders.
    2. It takes place in a government office. 
    3. Polygamy is not allowed.
    4. A marriage certificate is issued. 
23. The main problem facing mobile telecommunication in Africa is
    
    1. theft of mobile phones.
    2. high cost of repairing mobile phones.
    3. inadequate network coverage.
    4. that mobile phones are expensive to buy.
24. The old kingdom of Ghana had its capital in
    
    1. Timbuktu.
    2. Kumbi Saleh.
    3. Adwagast. 
    4. Bissandugu.
25. Which one of the following reasons describes why South Africa produces many manufactured goods?
    
    1. Availability of good transport network. 
    2. Availability of a large market.
    3. High rainfall in the country.
    4. Availability of variety of minerals.
26. Three of the following statements about struggle for independence in Tanganyika are true. Which one is not?
    
    1. Africans formed political parties.
    2. Africans used peaceful means.
    3. Africans waged guerilla war.
    4. African leaders negotiated for independence.
27. The main reason for the migration of the Bantu from the Congo basin was that they 
    1. wanted better farming land.
    2. were attacked by the Galla.
    3. were looking for iron for tool making.
    4. wanted goods for trade.
28. Which one of the following rivers does not drain into lake Turkana? River
    
    1. Omo.
    2. Ewaso Nyiro.
    3. Turkwel.
    4. Kerio.
29. The diagram below shows a fishing method.
    
    The fishing method illustrated in the diagram above is used to catch fish
    
    1. near the seashore.
    2. in fast flowing rivers. 
    3. in the deep sea.
    4. in fish ponds.
30. Which one of the following is the main benefit of regional trade in Africa?
    
    1. Expanded market for goods.
    2. Exchange of cultural practices.
    3. Improvement in road network.
    4. Production of variety of goods.
31. Mombasa experiences higher temperatures than Nyeri because
    
    1. Nyeri is on the windward side.
    2. Mombasa is at a lower altitude.
    3. Nyeri is found near the equator.
    4. Mombasa experiences higher rainfall. 
32. Social interaction among different communities in Kenya before the coming of Europeans was mainly through
    
    1. war.
    2. trade.
    3. marriage.
    4. sports.
33. The British used indirect rule policy in Northern Nigeria because
    
    1. Africans resisted colonial rule.
    2. the British wanted to assimilate Africans.
    3. Africans collaborated with the British.
    4. the region had strong traditional rulers.
34. Three of the following statements describe the population of Africa. Which one does not?
    1. Most people live in rural areas.
    2. Population distribution is influenced by rainfall.
    3. Population is evenly distributed.
    4. High rainfall areas have high population.
35. A child who is below eight years and whose nationality and parents are not known becomes a Kenya citizen by
    
    1. birth.
    2. adoption.
    3. registration.
    4. application.
36. Which one of the following is an economic right? Right to
    
    1. marry.
    2. clean environment
    3. vote.
    4. own property.
37. Three of the following are effects of the revolution of the earth. Which one is not?
    
    1. Deflection of winds.
    2. Day and night.
    3. Difference in length of day and night.
    4. Changing seasons.
38. The interaction of the Abagusii and the Luo in the pre-colonial period led to
    
    1. establishment of a new language.
    2. establishment of towns.
    3. exchange of names.
    4. introduction of monarchy rule.
39. Which one of the following statements about forestry in the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) is correct?
    
    1. Trees provide pulp for paper making.
    2. Forests are sources of hardwood timber.
    3. Trees are planted in straight rows.
    4. Most trees are softwoods.
40. The Berlin conference held in Germany in 1884 led to
    
    1. partition of Africa.
    2. abolition of slave trade.
    3. spread of Christianity in Africa.
    4. exploration of Africa by Europeans. 
41. The following are statements about a prominent African leader:
    
    1. He fought in the French army. 
    2. He was an assimilated African. 
    3. He represented his country in the French parliament.
       The person described above is
       
       1. Ahmed Sekou Toure.
       2. Kwame Nkrumah.
       3. Gamal Abdel Nasser
       4. Leopold Sedar Senghor.
42. The Organization of African Unity (OAU) was formed in 1963 mainly to
    
    1. promote co-operation among African states.
    2. eliminate colonial rule in Africa.
    3. promote similar systems of government. 
    4. prevent the spread of deserts.
43. The best way of supporting people who are addicted to drugs is through
    
    1. abolishing sale of drugs.
    2. arresting people who sell drugs.
    3. putting them in rehabilitation centres.
    4. putting them in prisons.
44. The country that is correctly matched with its seaport is
           Country                 Seaport
    
    1. Ghana                    Rabat
    2. Egypt                     Port Said
    3. Angola                   Tema
    4. Morocco                 Lobito
45. The Ogaden region in Ethiopia and Sahel region in West Africa are sparsely populated due to
    
    1. arid conditions in the regions.
    2. presence of tsetse flies.
    3. presence of swampy conditions.
    4. frequent seasonal flooding.
46. Which one of the following statements about pyrethrum growing in Kenya is true? It is
    
    1. grown in small farms.
    2. grown under irrigation.
    3. grown in large plantations.
    4. harvested using machines.
47. A similarity between a windsock and a windvane is that they
    
    1. measure the strength of wind.
    2. measure the direction of wind.
    3. measure the speed of wind.
    4. are kept in a stevenson's screen.
48. The main problem facing pastoral farming among the Fulani people is
    
    1. attacks on livestock by wild animals. 
    2. inadequate market for livestock.
    3. inadequate pasture in the dry season.
    4. presence of tsetse flies.
49. Two neighbouring farmers in a village have a dispute over their boundary. The best method of solving the conflict is
    
    1. selling the parcel of land under dispute. 
    2. filing a case in a court of law.
    3. reporting the matter to a police station. 
    4. involving village elders.
50. Which one of the following combinations is made up of countries that used peaceful means to attain independence?
    
    1. Algeria and Kenya.
    2. Ghana and Tanzania.
    3. Zimbabwe and Mozambique.
    4. Angola and Guinea Bissau.
51. Mombasa and Dar es Salaam started as a result of
    
    1. building of railway lines.
    2. settlement of Arabs along the coast. 
    3. coming of Portuguese to Eastern Africa. 
    4. mining activities in the areas.
52. Which one of the following lakes was not formed as a result of volcanicity? Lake 
    1. Natron. 
    2. Kivu. 
    3. Itasy. 
    4. Tana.
53. The main reason for the coming of Seyyid Said to Eastern Africa was to 
    1. find a sea route to India. 
    2. find the source of river Nile.
    3. control the coastal trade.
    4. acquire colonies in Eastern Africa.
54. Dairy farming in Kenya is carried out in the highland regions because the areas have 
    1. a large market for milk.
    2. good roads to transport milk.
    3. milk processing industries.
    4. cool and wet conditions.
55. The main effect on the environment of limestone mining is that
    
    1. lorries damage roads.
    2. dust from mines pollute the air.
    3. slums have started in mining areas.
    4. chemicals from mines pollute rivers. 
56. A person becomes the head of a county government in Kenya through
    
    1. election by voters in a county.
    2. appointment by the president.
    3. election by members of a county assembly. 
    4. appointment by public service commission.
57. When Tanganyika became a republic, the title of the head of state changed to
    
    1. prime minister.
    2. president
    3. emperor.
    4. king.
58. The most senior administrator in a county is the
    
    1. governor.
    2. county commissioner
    3. county representative
    4. speaker
59. The arm of the government that implements cabinet resolutions is headed by the
    
    1. chief justice.
    2. attorney general
    3. president
    4. speaker
60. Which one of the following actions may lead to a by election in a constituency?
    
    1. Dissolution of parliament.
    2. Death of a president.
    3. Formation of a new political party.
    4. Death of a member of parliament.

SECTION A

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION

61. Which one of the following was a duty given to Adam and Eve in the garden of Eden?
    
    1. Keeping the snake away from the garden. 
    2. Protecting the tree of life.
    3. Guarding and cultivating the garden.
    4. Building altars in the garden.
62. When God commanded Abraham to leave his father's home, he was living in
    
    1. Haran. 
    2. Ur.
    3. Egypt.
    4. Midian.
63. The brothers of Joseph hated him because
    
    1. he was a dreamer.
    2. he was a young handsome man.
    3. their father loved him most.
    4. he was a wise man.
64. Moses left the land of Midian to go to Egypt because
    
    1. his family was in Egypt.
    2. the king of Egypt sent for him.
    3. he had killed an Egyptian.
    4. he wanted to obey God's command.
65. Which one of the following was done by the Israelites on the night of the Exodus? They
    1. killed Egyptian firstborn males.
    2. smeared blood on their doorposts.
    3. recited the ten commandments.
    4. collected manna.
66. Which one of the following commandments shows respect for marriage? Do not
    
    1. steal.
    2. commit adultery.
    3. accuse anyone falsely.
    4. commit murder.
67. The two sons of Samuel who were judges in Israel were
    
    1. Mahlon and Chilon.
    2. Gershom and Eliezer.
    3. Joel and Abijah.
    4. Hophni and Phinehas.
68. The hometown of David was
    
    1. Bethlehem.
    2. Jericho
    3. Jerusalem.
    4. Ramah.
69. Who among the following people prophesied that Jesus would be born in Bethlehem?
    
    1. Jeremiah.
    2. Isaiah.
    3. Joel.
    4. Micah.
70. When angel Gabriel visited Mary, he told her that
    
    1. she would conceive by the power of the Holy Spirit.
    2. her son would not drink wine.
    3. she would have an everlasting kingdom.
    4. her son would be called John.
71. The main message of John the Baptist when he preached to the people was about
    
    1. kindness.
    2. repentance.
    3. humility.
    4. patience.
72. Who among the following disciples of Jesus was a tax collector?
    
    1. Matthew.
    2. Andrew.
    3. Nathaniel.
    4. Thomas.
73. Jesus healed the Roman officer's servant in the town of
    
    1. Jericho.
    2. Nain.
    3. Bethany.
    4. Capernaum.
74. The parable of the hidden treasure teaches Christians about
    
    1. the value of the kingdom of God.
    2. helping people in need.
    3. bringing people to the church.
    4. the growth of the kingdom of God.
75. Which one of the following events took place during the last supper?
    
    1. Peter cut off the ear of a slave.
    2. A cloud covered Jesus.
    3. Jesus pointed out His betrayer.
    4. An angel comforted Jesus.
76. Who among the following people buried the body of Jesus?
    
    1. Pontious pilate.
    2. Joseph of Arimathea.
    3. Simon of Cyrene.
    4. Ethiopian Eunuch.
77. Jesus ascended to heaven at
    
    1. Nain
    2. Sychar
    3. Joppa
    4. Bethany
78. The disciples received the Holy Spirit in the town of
    
    1. Jerusalem.
    2. Antioch.
    3. Jericho.
    4. Bethlehem.
79. The seven deacons were chosen mainly to
    
    1. protect the disciples from persecution.
    2. distribute food to widows.
    3. preach to the Gentiles.
    4. preach in the villages.
80. Which one of the following is a gift of the Holy Spirit?
    
    1. Faithfulness.
    2. Patience.
    3. Faith.
    4. Kindness.
81. Which one of the following is a book of history in the New Testament?
    
    1. Acts.
    2. Romans.
    3. Mark.
    4. Revelation.
82. People respect shrines in traditional African communities because
    
    1. ancestors are buried there.
    2. ceremonies are conducted there.
    3. they are considered holy.
    4. they are in dark places.
83. The work of priests in traditional African communities is to
    1. treat diseases.
    2. lead in offering sacrifices.
    3. conduct marriage ceremonies.
    4. advise the youth.
84. A common practice in both traditional African ncommunities and Christianity is
    
    1. reciting prayers. 
    2. pouring libation. 
    3. wearing charms. 
    4. offering sacrifices.
85. Ancestors are best remembered in traditional African communities through
    
    1. visiting their graves.
    2. naming children after them.
    3. composing songs for them.
    4. praying to them.
86. Atieno prays for her sick brother. This element of prayer is
    
    1. confession.
    2. petition.
    3. intercession.
    4. adoration.
87. Christians preach against misuse of drugs because
    
    1. it is a misuse of resources.
    2. those who misuse drugs are not respected. 
    3. it affects the health of the user.
    4. they can be arrested.
88. Which one of the following is a way in which Christians support the government in fighting corruption?
    
    1. Refusing to give bribes.
    2. Arresting people who are corrupt.
    3. Writing books about corruption.
    4. Reporting corruption cases.
89. Christians visit homes for orphaned children mainly to
    
    1. preach to them.
    2. fulfill the duty of helping the needy.
    3. find out what they need.
    4. give them money.
90. The first European missionaries who came to Kenya were sent by
    
    1. Royal Geographical Society. 
    2. Mill Hill Fathers.
    3. Holy Ghost Mission.
    4. Church Missionary Society.

SECTION B

ISLAMIC RELIGIOUS EDUCATION

61. A person who fasts has two pleasures. One during ____________________________ food.
    
    1. twaam. 
    2. iftaar.
    3. walima.
    4. suhur.
62. Which of the following vices is condemned in surah Al-Falaq?
    
    1. Witchcraft.
    2. Backbiting.
    3. Stealing.
    4. Adultery.
63. All the following are recommended preparations for reading the holy Qur'an except
    
    1. taking wudhu.
    2. a siwak.
    3. facing qibla.
    4. not putting it on the bare ground.
64. Which form of knowledge sticks best in mindnaccording to surah Alaq? Knowledge
    
    1. of pictures.
    2. of the pen.
    3. of cramming.
    4. from far away.
65. Allah (SW) was not happy and even cursed Abu Lahab because he
    
    1. joined Abraham to destroy the holy kaaba.
    2. refused to join Islamic faith.
    3. dispersed the prophet's congregation. 
    4. killed baby girls and burried others alive. 
66. What is the meaning of Taqwa in Islamic faith?
    
    1. Reliance on Allah.
    2. Obedience to Allah.
    3. The fear of God.
    4. Belief in Allah.
67. A Muslim who believes in Qadar should always say ___________________________ when making future plans.
    
    1. fii amaanillah
    2. mashallah
    3. astaghfirullah
    4. inshallah
68. After Takbiratul Ihraam, there follows
    
    1. seven Takbiras.
    2. surah Al-Fatiha. 
    3. bending for Rukuu.
    4. the first khutba.
69. In which of the following villages did the hypocrites of Uhud in the Muslim army turn back and disappeared?
    
    1. Abwa.
    2. Taif.
    3. Ashawt.
    4. Khaibar.
70. Which of the following ibaadaats cleanses off sins as free as a new born baby?
    
    1. Ablution.
    2. Hajj.
    3. Jum'a to Jum'a.
    4. Fast of sittat shawwal.
71. "Al-Baladil Ameen" is a description that was used to praise a city called
    
    1. Makkat mukarrama.
    2. Jerusalem.
    3. Madinat munawwara.
    4. Bethlehem. 
72. Muslims who reach at miqat to start hajj activities respond to Allah's call by uttering 
    1. tahniq.
    2. takbir.
    3. talbia.
    4. tahlil.
73. Which prophet of Allah was killed by being cut into pieces?
    
    1. Zakariya.
    2. Daud.
    3. Yahya.
    4. Yusuf.
74. In which festival should Muslims first attend prayers before eating anything?
    1. Idd-ul-Fitr.
    2. Milad-un-Nabii.
    3. Idd-ul-Hajj.
    4. Isra-wal-miraj
75. Prophet Musa (A.S) fled to Madyan after running away from 
    1. Firaun's
    2. Shuaib's
    3. Egypian's
    4. an Israelite's
76. The present city of security where all Muslims today go for Hajj was the first settlement of
    1. Ibrahim's family. 
    2. Adam's family.
    3. Muhammad's family.
    4. Nuh's family. 
77. The names "Allah" and "Prophet" are introduced into the ear of a newborn baby for the first time through
    
    1. adhaan.
    2. tashahhud.
    3. tahniq.
    4. iqama.
78. The angel of Allah (SW) charged with the responsibility to welcome those rewarded at the gates of paradise is
    
    1. Malik.
    2. Jibril.
    3. Israfil.
    4. Ridhwaan.
79. Muslims may locate and face Qibla for prayers by the help of all the following ways except
    
    1. use of a compass direction tool.
    2. use of the sunrise and sunset. 
    3. use of a physically available mosque.
    4. automatic obvious imagination.
80. Which of the following things is the same in both Jum'a and Idd prayers?
    
    1. The time of performing.
    2. When to say khutba.
    3. The number of rakaats prayed.
    4. Classification as sunna or fardh.
81. Nadhir ibaadaats are
    
    1. the self promise to Allah. 
    2. performed by few Muslims.
    3. performed as punishment.
    4. those performed at night.
82. Which one of the following was not an advice given to prophet Mohammad by Jibril (AS)? 
    1. To stay knowing that one day He will die.
    2. To love whom He loves but know that one day they'll separate.
    3. He will be judged in all His deeds.
    4. Not to walk on earth with pride.
83. The prophet assured Muslims that whoever shahada will be his or her last words before death will
    
    1. enter paradise.
    2. be resurrected.
    3. be heavier than the earth and all in it.
    4. be rewarded beyond imagination.
84. The level of buried treasures and precious minerals the one should have in order to qualify to give out zakat is called
    
    1. tarka.
    2. nisab.
    3. quut.
    4. qulatein.
85. The two swalats which have two adhaans in Islam are
    
    1. Idd-ul-fitr and Idd-ul-hajj.
    2. kusuf and khusuf.
    3. taraweh and tahajjud.
    4. fajr and Jum'a.
86. Who was the secretary at the Hudaibiyaa treaty agreements and writings?
    
    1. Zaid bin Thaabit.
    2. Abubakr Swiddiiq.
    3. Abu Sufian. 
    4. Ali bi Abin Talib.
87. Edat is observed
    
    1. in the event of a husband's death and twalaq.
    2. when a lady becomes seriously sick. 
    3. if the couple never had Nikah ceremony.
    4. by all virgin ladies before marriage. 
88. Which of the following attributes of Allah is wrongly matched with its meaning?
    1. Al-maswawwir - the dominant.
    2. Al-Baar - the originator. 
    3. Al-Khaaliq - the creator.
    4. Al-Razzaaq - the provider.
89. What do Muslims celebrate on the first day on shawwaal?
    
    1. Eid-ul-fitr.
    2. Milad-un-nabii.
    3. Aqiqa.
    4. Khitma.
90. Muslims are allowed to reduce the number of rakaats in salaat
    
    1. dhuhr.
    2. musaafir.
    3. janaaza.
    4. maktuba.

MARKING SCHEME

1. D
2. B
3. A
4. A
5. C
6. D
7. B
8. C
9. A
10. C
11. D
12. A
13. D
14. B
15. C
16. C
17. B
18. A
19. B
20. C
21. D
22. A
23. C
24. B
25. D
26. C
27. A
28. B
29. A
30. A
31. B
32. C
33. D
34. C
35. A
36. D
37. B
38. C
39. B
40. A
41. D
42. A
43. C
44. B
45. A
46. A
47. B
48. C
49. D
50. B
51. B
52. A
53. C
54. D
55. B
56. A
57. B
58. B
59. C
60. D

C.R.E

61. C
62. A
63. C
64. D
65. B
66. B
67. C
68. A
69. D
70. A
71. B
72. A
73. D
74. A
75. C
76. B
77. D
78. A
79. B
80. C
81. A
82. C
83. B
84. A
85. B
86. C
87. C
88. D
89. B
90. D

I.R.E

61. D
62. A
63. C
64. B
65. C
66. C
67. D
68. A
69. C
70. B
71. A
72. C
73. A
74. C
75. A
76. A
77. A
78. D
79. D
80. C
81. A
82. D
83. A
84. B
85. D
86. D
87. A
88. A
89. A
90. B