QUESTIONS  

1. What is 7009 written in words?
   1. Seven hundred and nine
   2. Seventy thousand and nine
   3. Seven thousand and nine
   4. Seven hundred thousand and nine
2. What is the place value of 7 in the number 3780?
   
   1. Tens
   2. Hundreds
   3. Thousands
   4. Ones
3. Add:
   1809 + 8 =
   
   1. 9809
   2. 1807
   3. 1889
   4. 1817
4. During an Agriculture lesson, learners planted 9123 tree seedlings. What is the total value of digit 9 in the number of planted trees seedlings?
   
   1. 9000
   2. 20
   3. 9100
   4. 3120
5. The number of cows among four brothers are 261, 162, 216, 126. Arrange the number of cows from the largest to the smallest?
   1. 126, 162, 216, 261
   2. 261, 126, 162, 216
   3. 216, 261, 162, 126
   4. 261, 216, 162, 126
6. A learner was given 9 coloured pencils by his teacher. How many coloured pencils were these in Roman numerals?
   1. viii
   2. ix
   3. iv
   4. xi
7. In a certain town there are 4273 men and 2397 children. How many people are there altogether?
   1. 6670
   2. 6570
   3. 6569
   4. 6870
8. There are 7 days in a week. How many days are there in 9 weeks altogether?
   1. 63
   2. 56
   3. 36
   4. 16
9. Which one of the following is an acute angle?
   
10. Tony had 42 exercise books. He shared the books equally among his 6 friends. How may books did each get?
    1. 9
    2. 7
    3. 36
    4. 8
11. What is the time?
          
    1. Seven minutes to 11
    2. Eleven minutes to seven
    3. Twenty minutes to eleven
    4. Thirty five minutes past 10
12. Koech had 72 mangoes. He shared the mangoes equally among 9 children. How many mangoes did each get?
    1. 8
    2. 7
    3. 9
    4. 3
13. Mwanza had sh. 1650. He bought 1kg of cooking oil for sh. 560. How much money was he left with?
    1. 1010
    2. 1600
    3. 1090
    4. 1190
14. The mass of a bag of maize is 299kg. What is the mass of the bag of maize to the nearest tens?
    1. 290
    2. 300
    3. 298
    4. 200
15. What is the multiple of 5 and 9?
    1. 14
    2. 59
    3. 54
    4. 45
16. Arrange these fractions from the largest to the smallest
    ¹/₈, ½, ¹/₆, ¼
    1. ½, ¼, ¹/₆, ¹/₈
    2. ¼, ¹/₆, ¹/_8, ½
    3. ½, ¹/₈, ¹/₆, ¼
    4. ¹/₈, ¹/₆, ¼, ½
17. Work out:
      H             Min
      9              45
    +3              30
                           
    1. 12h 75 min
    2. 12h 15 min
    3. 13h 15 min
    4. 12h 75 min
18. Work out:
      M        cm
      36        6
    −24        9  
                       
    1. 12m 03cm
    2. 12m 15cm
    3. 10m 15cm
    4. 11m 97cm
19. Which multiple of 8 comes before 72?
    1. 56
    2. 64
    3. 80
    4. 63
20. Which one of the following list consists of odd numbers only?
    1. 13, 27, 105, 89
    2. 38, 79, 203, 65
    3. 12, 64, 58, 76
    4. 14, 22, 87, 101
21. Work out the perimeter of the figure below
    
    1. 30cm
    2. 48cm
    3. 60cm
    4. 36cm
22. How many sh. 20 coins are there in sh. 500?
    1. 100
    2. 5
    3. 10
    4. 25
23. Convert 650 cents to shillings and cents
    1. sh. 6.65 cents
    2. sh. 6.50 cents
    3. sh. 50.65 cents
    4. sh. 5.60 cents
24. Work out:
    1784 litres + 349 litres =
    1. 2133 litres
    2. 2033 litres
    3. 1039 litres
    4. 1133 litres
25. A fruit vender had 99 oranges. She sold the oranges in groups of 6. How many oranges remained?
    1. 16
    2. 93
    3. 63
    4. 3
26. Which fraction is shaded?
    
    
    1. ⁴/₁₀
    2. ⁶/₁₀
    3. ⁵/₁₀
    4. ²/₁₀
27. Which of the following is an even number?
    1. 99
    2. 37
    3. 108
    4. 85
28. Jane bought 6 oranges on Monday, 8 oranges on Tuesday, 10 oranges on Wednesday, 12 oranges on Thursday. How many oranges did she buy on Friday?
    1. 14 oranges
    2. 13 oranges
    3. 16 oranges
    4. 18 oranges
29. Round off 642 to the nearest tens
    1. 600
    2. 640
    3. 620
    4. 643
30. List the first 4 multiples of 6
    1. 6, 8, 10, 12
    2. 0, 12, 16, 18
    3. 12, 18, 24, 30
    4. 6, 12, 18, 24

MARKING SCHEME

1. C
2. B
3. D
4. A
5. D
6. B
7. A
8. A
9. B
10. B
11. C
12. A
13. C
14. B
15. D
16. A
17. C
18. D
19. B
20. A
21. C
22. D
23. B
24. A
25. D
26. B
27. C
28. A
29. B
30. D

PS
Study the map of Wema area and answer questions 1 to 7.

1. The feature formed along river Rubo at the point marked x is
   
   1. a confluence.
   2. an ox-bow lake.
   3. a delta.
   4. a meander.
2. The climate around lake Peto can be described as
   
   1. cool and dry. 
   2. hot and dry.
   3. hot and wet.
   4. cool and wet.
3. People who live in Dege village are likely to suffer from
   
   1. water-borne diseases.
   2. frequent droughts.
   3. acute soil erosion.
   4. seasonal flooding.
4. The settlement pattern in Wema area can be described as
   
   1. clustered.
   2. linear.
   3. dense.
   4. sparse.
5. The main economic benefit of lake Peto is that it is a
   
   1. source of rainfall.
   2. source of sand.
   3. source of fish.
   4. tourist attraction site.
6. Which one of the following economic activities is not carried out in Wema area?
   1. Fishing.
   2. Crop farming.
   3. Trading.
   4. Mining.
7. Land in Wema area rises towards
   
   1. north east.
   2. north west.
   3. south east.
   4. south west.
8. The main reason why the San people did not develop strong political systems was that
   
   1. they were few in numbers.
   2. they lived in a dry area.
   3. there was no centralized source of power.
   4. they were frequently attacked by other communities.
9. Three of the following statements about a school routine are true. Which one is not? It
   1. outlines the school rules.
   2. is prepared by the deputy head teacher. 
   3. allocates time for school activities.
   4. ensures proper use of time.
10. In Kenya, sisal is grown in large plantations in
    
    1. Mwea in Kirinyaga.
    2. Ahero in Kisumu.
    3. Vipingo in Kilifi.
    4. Mumias in Kakamega.
11. Below are descriptions of a mineral mined in Kenya:
    
    1. It is white in colour.
    2. It is mined in the floor of the Rift Valley. 
    3. It is used in making heat insulators.
       The mineral described above is
       1. diatomite.
       2. soda ash.
       3. limestone.
       4. fluorspar.

Use the map of Africa below to answer questions 12 to 15.

12. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the climate of the shaded areas marked Y?
    
    1. Annual rainfall is less than 250mm.
    2. The area has rainfall throughout the year. 
    3. The area has cool and wet climate.
    4. The area has equatorial climate.
13. The main reason for the construction of the dam marked Z was to
    
    1. control flooding along the river.
    2. create an inland waterway.
    3. store water for irrigation.
    4. generate electricity.
14. The country marked T was colonized by
    
    1. France.
    2. Italy.
    3. Germany.
    4. Spain.
15. Which one of the following is the effect of the ocean currents marked R? They
    
    1. cause fog and mist.
    2. cause dry conditions.
    3. bring rainfall to the Congo basin.
    4. mark the start of the dry season.
16. The main reason why the Nandi people fought the British during the colonial period in Kenya was that the
    
    1. British were building a railway line.
    2. British stopped them from trading.
    3. Nandi wanted to retain their independence.
    4. Nandi had strong leaders.
17. The following are descriptions of a vegetation zone in Africa:
    1. Trees are tall and evergreen.
    2. Trees grow close together.
    3. There is little undergrowth.
       The vegetation zone described above is
       
       1. savannah vegetation.
       2. rainforest vegetation.
       3. mediterranean vegetation.
       4. temperate vegetation.
18. The community that correctly fills the blank space marked K is
    
    
    1. Serer
    2. Mossi
    3. Dagomba
    4. Gwima.
19. Which one of the following is a measure taken to conserve wildlife in Africa?
    
    1. Building hotels near game parks.
    2. Fencing game parks.
    3. Advertising tourist attraction sites.
    4. Reducing entry fee to game parks.
20. King Lewanika collaborated with the British because he wanted to
    
    1. trade with the British.
    2. learn the European way of life.
    3. be protected from hostile neighbours.
    4. be employed by the British.
21. Mount Marsabit and mount Meru were formed when
    
    1. land between faults was uplifted.
    2. soft parts of the earth were eroded. C
    3. underneath rocks were folded.
    4. molten magma solidified on the surface. 
22. Which one of the following statements describes a customary marriage?
    
    1. It is conducted by clan elders.
    2. It takes place in a government office. 
    3. Polygamy is not allowed.
    4. A marriage certificate is issued. 
23. The main problem facing mobile telecommunication in Africa is
    
    1. theft of mobile phones.
    2. high cost of repairing mobile phones.
    3. inadequate network coverage.
    4. that mobile phones are expensive to buy.
24. The old kingdom of Ghana had its capital in
    
    1. Timbuktu.
    2. Kumbi Saleh.
    3. Adwagast. 
    4. Bissandugu.
25. Which one of the following reasons describes why South Africa produces many manufactured goods?
    
    1. Availability of good transport network. 
    2. Availability of a large market.
    3. High rainfall in the country.
    4. Availability of variety of minerals.
26. Three of the following statements about struggle for independence in Tanganyika are true. Which one is not?
    
    1. Africans formed political parties.
    2. Africans used peaceful means.
    3. Africans waged guerilla war.
    4. African leaders negotiated for independence.
27. The main reason for the migration of the Bantu from the Congo basin was that they 
    1. wanted better farming land.
    2. were attacked by the Galla.
    3. were looking for iron for tool making.
    4. wanted goods for trade.
28. Which one of the following rivers does not drain into lake Turkana? River
    
    1. Omo.
    2. Ewaso Nyiro.
    3. Turkwel.
    4. Kerio.
29. The diagram below shows a fishing method.
    
    The fishing method illustrated in the diagram above is used to catch fish
    
    1. near the seashore.
    2. in fast flowing rivers. 
    3. in the deep sea.
    4. in fish ponds.
30. Which one of the following is the main benefit of regional trade in Africa?
    
    1. Expanded market for goods.
    2. Exchange of cultural practices.
    3. Improvement in road network.
    4. Production of variety of goods.
31. Mombasa experiences higher temperatures than Nyeri because
    
    1. Nyeri is on the windward side.
    2. Mombasa is at a lower altitude.
    3. Nyeri is found near the equator.
    4. Mombasa experiences higher rainfall. 
32. Social interaction among different communities in Kenya before the coming of Europeans was mainly through
    
    1. war.
    2. trade.
    3. marriage.
    4. sports.
33. The British used indirect rule policy in Northern Nigeria because
    
    1. Africans resisted colonial rule.
    2. the British wanted to assimilate Africans.
    3. Africans collaborated with the British.
    4. the region had strong traditional rulers.
34. Three of the following statements describe the population of Africa. Which one does not?
    1. Most people live in rural areas.
    2. Population distribution is influenced by rainfall.
    3. Population is evenly distributed.
    4. High rainfall areas have high population.
35. A child who is below eight years and whose nationality and parents are not known becomes a Kenya citizen by
    
    1. birth.
    2. adoption.
    3. registration.
    4. application.
36. Which one of the following is an economic right? Right to
    
    1. marry.
    2. clean environment
    3. vote.
    4. own property.
37. Three of the following are effects of the revolution of the earth. Which one is not?
    
    1. Deflection of winds.
    2. Day and night.
    3. Difference in length of day and night.
    4. Changing seasons.
38. The interaction of the Abagusii and the Luo in the pre-colonial period led to
    
    1. establishment of a new language.
    2. establishment of towns.
    3. exchange of names.
    4. introduction of monarchy rule.
39. Which one of the following statements about forestry in the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) is correct?
    
    1. Trees provide pulp for paper making.
    2. Forests are sources of hardwood timber.
    3. Trees are planted in straight rows.
    4. Most trees are softwoods.
40. The Berlin conference held in Germany in 1884 led to
    
    1. partition of Africa.
    2. abolition of slave trade.
    3. spread of Christianity in Africa.
    4. exploration of Africa by Europeans. 
41. The following are statements about a prominent African leader:
    
    1. He fought in the French army. 
    2. He was an assimilated African. 
    3. He represented his country in the French parliament.
       The person described above is
       
       1. Ahmed Sekou Toure.
       2. Kwame Nkrumah.
       3. Gamal Abdel Nasser
       4. Leopold Sedar Senghor.
42. The Organization of African Unity (OAU) was formed in 1963 mainly to
    
    1. promote co-operation among African states.
    2. eliminate colonial rule in Africa.
    3. promote similar systems of government. 
    4. prevent the spread of deserts.
43. The best way of supporting people who are addicted to drugs is through
    
    1. abolishing sale of drugs.
    2. arresting people who sell drugs.
    3. putting them in rehabilitation centres.
    4. putting them in prisons.
44. The country that is correctly matched with its seaport is
           Country                 Seaport
    
    1. Ghana                    Rabat
    2. Egypt                     Port Said
    3. Angola                   Tema
    4. Morocco                 Lobito
45. The Ogaden region in Ethiopia and Sahel region in West Africa are sparsely populated due to
    
    1. arid conditions in the regions.
    2. presence of tsetse flies.
    3. presence of swampy conditions.
    4. frequent seasonal flooding.
46. Which one of the following statements about pyrethrum growing in Kenya is true? It is
    
    1. grown in small farms.
    2. grown under irrigation.
    3. grown in large plantations.
    4. harvested using machines.
47. A similarity between a windsock and a windvane is that they
    
    1. measure the strength of wind.
    2. measure the direction of wind.
    3. measure the speed of wind.
    4. are kept in a stevenson's screen.
48. The main problem facing pastoral farming among the Fulani people is
    
    1. attacks on livestock by wild animals. 
    2. inadequate market for livestock.
    3. inadequate pasture in the dry season.
    4. presence of tsetse flies.
49. Two neighbouring farmers in a village have a dispute over their boundary. The best method of solving the conflict is
    
    1. selling the parcel of land under dispute. 
    2. filing a case in a court of law.
    3. reporting the matter to a police station. 
    4. involving village elders.
50. Which one of the following combinations is made up of countries that used peaceful means to attain independence?
    
    1. Algeria and Kenya.
    2. Ghana and Tanzania.
    3. Zimbabwe and Mozambique.
    4. Angola and Guinea Bissau.
51. Mombasa and Dar es Salaam started as a result of
    
    1. building of railway lines.
    2. settlement of Arabs along the coast. 
    3. coming of Portuguese to Eastern Africa. 
    4. mining activities in the areas.
52. Which one of the following lakes was not formed as a result of volcanicity? Lake 
    1. Natron. 
    2. Kivu. 
    3. Itasy. 
    4. Tana.
53. The main reason for the coming of Seyyid Said to Eastern Africa was to 
    1. find a sea route to India. 
    2. find the source of river Nile.
    3. control the coastal trade.
    4. acquire colonies in Eastern Africa.
54. Dairy farming in Kenya is carried out in the highland regions because the areas have 
    1. a large market for milk.
    2. good roads to transport milk.
    3. milk processing industries.
    4. cool and wet conditions.
55. The main effect on the environment of limestone mining is that
    
    1. lorries damage roads.
    2. dust from mines pollute the air.
    3. slums have started in mining areas.
    4. chemicals from mines pollute rivers. 
56. A person becomes the head of a county government in Kenya through
    
    1. election by voters in a county.
    2. appointment by the president.
    3. election by members of a county assembly. 
    4. appointment by public service commission.
57. When Tanganyika became a republic, the title of the head of state changed to
    
    1. prime minister.
    2. president
    3. emperor.
    4. king.
58. The most senior administrator in a county is the
    
    1. governor.
    2. county commissioner
    3. county representative
    4. speaker
59. The arm of the government that implements cabinet resolutions is headed by the
    
    1. chief justice.
    2. attorney general
    3. president
    4. speaker
60. Which one of the following actions may lead to a by election in a constituency?
    
    1. Dissolution of parliament.
    2. Death of a president.
    3. Formation of a new political party.
    4. Death of a member of parliament.

SECTION A

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION

61. Which one of the following was a duty given to Adam and Eve in the garden of Eden?
    
    1. Keeping the snake away from the garden. 
    2. Protecting the tree of life.
    3. Guarding and cultivating the garden.
    4. Building altars in the garden.
62. When God commanded Abraham to leave his father's home, he was living in
    
    1. Haran. 
    2. Ur.
    3. Egypt.
    4. Midian.
63. The brothers of Joseph hated him because
    
    1. he was a dreamer.
    2. he was a young handsome man.
    3. their father loved him most.
    4. he was a wise man.
64. Moses left the land of Midian to go to Egypt because
    
    1. his family was in Egypt.
    2. the king of Egypt sent for him.
    3. he had killed an Egyptian.
    4. he wanted to obey God's command.
65. Which one of the following was done by the Israelites on the night of the Exodus? They
    1. killed Egyptian firstborn males.
    2. smeared blood on their doorposts.
    3. recited the ten commandments.
    4. collected manna.
66. Which one of the following commandments shows respect for marriage? Do not
    
    1. steal.
    2. commit adultery.
    3. accuse anyone falsely.
    4. commit murder.
67. The two sons of Samuel who were judges in Israel were
    
    1. Mahlon and Chilon.
    2. Gershom and Eliezer.
    3. Joel and Abijah.
    4. Hophni and Phinehas.
68. The hometown of David was
    
    1. Bethlehem.
    2. Jericho
    3. Jerusalem.
    4. Ramah.
69. Who among the following people prophesied that Jesus would be born in Bethlehem?
    
    1. Jeremiah.
    2. Isaiah.
    3. Joel.
    4. Micah.
70. When angel Gabriel visited Mary, he told her that
    
    1. she would conceive by the power of the Holy Spirit.
    2. her son would not drink wine.
    3. she would have an everlasting kingdom.
    4. her son would be called John.
71. The main message of John the Baptist when he preached to the people was about
    
    1. kindness.
    2. repentance.
    3. humility.
    4. patience.
72. Who among the following disciples of Jesus was a tax collector?
    
    1. Matthew.
    2. Andrew.
    3. Nathaniel.
    4. Thomas.
73. Jesus healed the Roman officer's servant in the town of
    
    1. Jericho.
    2. Nain.
    3. Bethany.
    4. Capernaum.
74. The parable of the hidden treasure teaches Christians about
    
    1. the value of the kingdom of God.
    2. helping people in need.
    3. bringing people to the church.
    4. the growth of the kingdom of God.
75. Which one of the following events took place during the last supper?
    
    1. Peter cut off the ear of a slave.
    2. A cloud covered Jesus.
    3. Jesus pointed out His betrayer.
    4. An angel comforted Jesus.
76. Who among the following people buried the body of Jesus?
    
    1. Pontious pilate.
    2. Joseph of Arimathea.
    3. Simon of Cyrene.
    4. Ethiopian Eunuch.
77. Jesus ascended to heaven at
    
    1. Nain
    2. Sychar
    3. Joppa
    4. Bethany
78. The disciples received the Holy Spirit in the town of
    
    1. Jerusalem.
    2. Antioch.
    3. Jericho.
    4. Bethlehem.
79. The seven deacons were chosen mainly to
    
    1. protect the disciples from persecution.
    2. distribute food to widows.
    3. preach to the Gentiles.
    4. preach in the villages.
80. Which one of the following is a gift of the Holy Spirit?
    
    1. Faithfulness.
    2. Patience.
    3. Faith.
    4. Kindness.
81. Which one of the following is a book of history in the New Testament?
    
    1. Acts.
    2. Romans.
    3. Mark.
    4. Revelation.
82. People respect shrines in traditional African communities because
    
    1. ancestors are buried there.
    2. ceremonies are conducted there.
    3. they are considered holy.
    4. they are in dark places.
83. The work of priests in traditional African communities is to
    1. treat diseases.
    2. lead in offering sacrifices.
    3. conduct marriage ceremonies.
    4. advise the youth.
84. A common practice in both traditional African ncommunities and Christianity is
    
    1. reciting prayers. 
    2. pouring libation. 
    3. wearing charms. 
    4. offering sacrifices.
85. Ancestors are best remembered in traditional African communities through
    
    1. visiting their graves.
    2. naming children after them.
    3. composing songs for them.
    4. praying to them.
86. Atieno prays for her sick brother. This element of prayer is
    
    1. confession.
    2. petition.
    3. intercession.
    4. adoration.
87. Christians preach against misuse of drugs because
    
    1. it is a misuse of resources.
    2. those who misuse drugs are not respected. 
    3. it affects the health of the user.
    4. they can be arrested.
88. Which one of the following is a way in which Christians support the government in fighting corruption?
    
    1. Refusing to give bribes.
    2. Arresting people who are corrupt.
    3. Writing books about corruption.
    4. Reporting corruption cases.
89. Christians visit homes for orphaned children mainly to
    
    1. preach to them.
    2. fulfill the duty of helping the needy.
    3. find out what they need.
    4. give them money.
90. The first European missionaries who came to Kenya were sent by
    
    1. Royal Geographical Society. 
    2. Mill Hill Fathers.
    3. Holy Ghost Mission.
    4. Church Missionary Society.

SECTION B

ISLAMIC RELIGIOUS EDUCATION

61. A person who fasts has two pleasures. One during ____________________________ food.
    
    1. twaam. 
    2. iftaar.
    3. walima.
    4. suhur.
62. Which of the following vices is condemned in surah Al-Falaq?
    
    1. Witchcraft.
    2. Backbiting.
    3. Stealing.
    4. Adultery.
63. All the following are recommended preparations for reading the holy Qur'an except
    
    1. taking wudhu.
    2. a siwak.
    3. facing qibla.
    4. not putting it on the bare ground.
64. Which form of knowledge sticks best in mindnaccording to surah Alaq? Knowledge
    
    1. of pictures.
    2. of the pen.
    3. of cramming.
    4. from far away.
65. Allah (SW) was not happy and even cursed Abu Lahab because he
    
    1. joined Abraham to destroy the holy kaaba.
    2. refused to join Islamic faith.
    3. dispersed the prophet's congregation. 
    4. killed baby girls and burried others alive. 
66. What is the meaning of Taqwa in Islamic faith?
    
    1. Reliance on Allah.
    2. Obedience to Allah.
    3. The fear of God.
    4. Belief in Allah.
67. A Muslim who believes in Qadar should always say ___________________________ when making future plans.
    
    1. fii amaanillah
    2. mashallah
    3. astaghfirullah
    4. inshallah
68. After Takbiratul Ihraam, there follows
    
    1. seven Takbiras.
    2. surah Al-Fatiha. 
    3. bending for Rukuu.
    4. the first khutba.
69. In which of the following villages did the hypocrites of Uhud in the Muslim army turn back and disappeared?
    
    1. Abwa.
    2. Taif.
    3. Ashawt.
    4. Khaibar.
70. Which of the following ibaadaats cleanses off sins as free as a new born baby?
    
    1. Ablution.
    2. Hajj.
    3. Jum'a to Jum'a.
    4. Fast of sittat shawwal.
71. "Al-Baladil Ameen" is a description that was used to praise a city called
    
    1. Makkat mukarrama.
    2. Jerusalem.
    3. Madinat munawwara.
    4. Bethlehem. 
72. Muslims who reach at miqat to start hajj activities respond to Allah's call by uttering 
    1. tahniq.
    2. takbir.
    3. talbia.
    4. tahlil.
73. Which prophet of Allah was killed by being cut into pieces?
    
    1. Zakariya.
    2. Daud.
    3. Yahya.
    4. Yusuf.
74. In which festival should Muslims first attend prayers before eating anything?
    1. Idd-ul-Fitr.
    2. Milad-un-Nabii.
    3. Idd-ul-Hajj.
    4. Isra-wal-miraj
75. Prophet Musa (A.S) fled to Madyan after running away from 
    1. Firaun's
    2. Shuaib's
    3. Egypian's
    4. an Israelite's
76. The present city of security where all Muslims today go for Hajj was the first settlement of
    1. Ibrahim's family. 
    2. Adam's family.
    3. Muhammad's family.
    4. Nuh's family. 
77. The names "Allah" and "Prophet" are introduced into the ear of a newborn baby for the first time through
    
    1. adhaan.
    2. tashahhud.
    3. tahniq.
    4. iqama.
78. The angel of Allah (SW) charged with the responsibility to welcome those rewarded at the gates of paradise is
    
    1. Malik.
    2. Jibril.
    3. Israfil.
    4. Ridhwaan.
79. Muslims may locate and face Qibla for prayers by the help of all the following ways except
    
    1. use of a compass direction tool.
    2. use of the sunrise and sunset. 
    3. use of a physically available mosque.
    4. automatic obvious imagination.
80. Which of the following things is the same in both Jum'a and Idd prayers?
    
    1. The time of performing.
    2. When to say khutba.
    3. The number of rakaats prayed.
    4. Classification as sunna or fardh.
81. Nadhir ibaadaats are
    
    1. the self promise to Allah. 
    2. performed by few Muslims.
    3. performed as punishment.
    4. those performed at night.
82. Which one of the following was not an advice given to prophet Mohammad by Jibril (AS)? 
    1. To stay knowing that one day He will die.
    2. To love whom He loves but know that one day they'll separate.
    3. He will be judged in all His deeds.
    4. Not to walk on earth with pride.
83. The prophet assured Muslims that whoever shahada will be his or her last words before death will
    
    1. enter paradise.
    2. be resurrected.
    3. be heavier than the earth and all in it.
    4. be rewarded beyond imagination.
84. The level of buried treasures and precious minerals the one should have in order to qualify to give out zakat is called
    
    1. tarka.
    2. nisab.
    3. quut.
    4. qulatein.
85. The two swalats which have two adhaans in Islam are
    
    1. Idd-ul-fitr and Idd-ul-hajj.
    2. kusuf and khusuf.
    3. taraweh and tahajjud.
    4. fajr and Jum'a.
86. Who was the secretary at the Hudaibiyaa treaty agreements and writings?
    
    1. Zaid bin Thaabit.
    2. Abubakr Swiddiiq.
    3. Abu Sufian. 
    4. Ali bi Abin Talib.
87. Edat is observed
    
    1. in the event of a husband's death and twalaq.
    2. when a lady becomes seriously sick. 
    3. if the couple never had Nikah ceremony.
    4. by all virgin ladies before marriage. 
88. Which of the following attributes of Allah is wrongly matched with its meaning?
    1. Al-maswawwir - the dominant.
    2. Al-Baar - the originator. 
    3. Al-Khaaliq - the creator.
    4. Al-Razzaaq - the provider.
89. What do Muslims celebrate on the first day on shawwaal?
    
    1. Eid-ul-fitr.
    2. Milad-un-nabii.
    3. Aqiqa.
    4. Khitma.
90. Muslims are allowed to reduce the number of rakaats in salaat
    
    1. dhuhr.
    2. musaafir.
    3. janaaza.
    4. maktuba.

MARKING SCHEME

1. D
2. B
3. A
4. A
5. C
6. D
7. B
8. C
9. A
10. C
11. D
12. A
13. D
14. B
15. C
16. C
17. B
18. A
19. B
20. C
21. D
22. A
23. C
24. B
25. D
26. C
27. A
28. B
29. A
30. A
31. B
32. C
33. D
34. C
35. A
36. D
37. B
38. C
39. B
40. A
41. D
42. A
43. C
44. B
45. A
46. A
47. B
48. C
49. D
50. B
51. B
52. A
53. C
54. D
55. B
56. A
57. B
58. B
59. C
60. D

C.R.E

61. C
62. A
63. C
64. D
65. B
66. B
67. C
68. A
69. D
70. A
71. B
72. A
73. D
74. A
75. C
76. B
77. D
78. A
79. B
80. C
81. A
82. C
83. B
84. A
85. B
86. C
87. C
88. D
89. B
90. D

I.R.E

61. D
62. A
63. C
64. B
65. C
66. C
67. D
68. A
69. C
70. B
71. A
72. C
73. A
74. C
75. A
76. A
77. A
78. D
79. D
80. C
81. A
82. D
83. A
84. B
85. D
86. D
87. A
88. A
89. A
90. B

QUESTIONS   

1. Which one of the following is not an important factor to consider when buying medicinal drugs? The
   
   1. appropriate dose.
   2. date the drug was manufactured. 
   3. doctor's prescription and instruction.
   4. date of expiry.
2. In which of the following parts of the human digestive system is a juice produced that commences the process of digestion?
   
   1. Mouth.
   2. Stomach.
   3. Small intestines.
   4. Large intestines.
3. The diagram below shows a human heart.
   
   Which of the labelled chambers pumps blood to the lungs for oxygenation?
   
   1. E
   2. F
   3. G
   4. H
4. The type of soil that has a high ability to retain water is good for
   1. building and construction.
   2. growing crops.
   3. making ribbons.
   4. mixing with cement.
5. Which one of the following statements about HIV/AIDS is correct?
   
   1. HIV/AIDS can be transmitted through mosquito bites.
   2. A person develops AIDS as soon as they contract the virus.
   3. During window stage, a blood test shows no presence of HIV.
   4. HIV/AIDS affects immoral people.
6. A weed has the following characteristics:
   1. Yellow fruits when ripe.
   2. Presence of thorn on stems, branches and leaves.
      The weed with these characteristies is
      1. wandering jew.
      2. black jack.
      3. oxalis.
      4. sodom apple.
7. Which one of the following mixtures can be separated by picking?
   1. Maize flour and iron filings.
   2. Salt and soil.
   3. Sugar and salt.
   4. Rice and sand grains.
8. Which set of crops below has a tap root system?
   1. Beans and kales.
   2. Millet and napier grass.
   3. Cassava and groundnuts.
   4. Peas and wheat.
9. Which one of the following methods is suitable for controlling all types of animal parasites?
   1. Deworming.
   2. Rotational grazing.
   3. Dipping.
   4. Spraying.
10. Which one of the following is a field pest?
    1. Weevil.
    2. Stalk borer.
    3. Rodent.
    4. Termite.
11. Which one of the following is a recreational use of water?
    1. Irrigating vegetables.
    2. Cooling engines.
    3. Watering animals.
    4. Skating on ice sheets.
12. Which one of the following is a conserved feed?
    1. Cotton seed cake.
    2. Hay.
    3. Sweet potato vines.
    4. Napier grass.
13. Which one of the following animal feeds is cut, chopped into small pieces, compressed and stored under an airtight condition as a way of preservation?
    1. Hay.
    2. Concentrates.
    3. Pasture.
    4. Silage.
14. Which one of the following is not a suitable way of conserving water? 
    1. Recycling sewage water.
    2. Reusing polluted water.
    3. Using just enough water.
    4. Harvesting rain water.
15. The diagram below shows an experiment to investigate a certain component of soil.
    
    The component being investigated is
    1. air
    2. humus.
    3. living organisms. 
    4. water
16. During interdependence in living things, animals do not depend on plants for
    1. habitat.
    2. pollination.
    3. food.
    4. medicine.
17. Which of the following teeth is never shed?
    
18.  Which one of the following types of soil erosion takes place without being noticed?
    1. Sheet erosion.
    2. Rill erosion.
    3. Splash erosion.
    4. Gulley erosion.
19. In which of the following methods of separating mixtures is only one substance recovered?
    1. Sieving.
    2. Decanting.
    3. Filtering.
    4. Evaporation.
20. The soil that cracks when dry also
    1. feels slippery when wet. 
    2. has the lowest capillarity.
    3. has the best drainage.
    4. has the largest air spaces.
21. Which one of the following tools can be maintained by applying oil and grease when in use?
    1. File.
    2. Ladder.
    3. Wheelbarrow.
    4. Hammer.
22. Which one of the following is not important when investigating the rate of solubility of substances? The
    1. the amount of solute.
    2. amount of solvent.
    3. temperature of solvent.
    4. the size of the containers.
23. The diagram below shows an experiment done to investigate a certain property of light.
    
    The aspect being investigated is 
    1. refraction.
    2. light travels in a straight line.
    3. reflection.
    4. dispersion.
24. Which one of the following weather instruments is used to show two aspects of weather?
    1. Windvane.
    2. Windsock.
    3. Air thermometer.
    4. Liquid thermometer.
25. In which one of the following circuit arrangements will the bulb not light?
    
26. People living with HIV/AIDS require the following except
    1. small quantities of food at regular intervals.
    2. plenty of exercises.
    3. sufficient sleep.
    4. large quantities of a balanced diet at once.
27. A weighing scale works in the same way as a
    1. spring balance. 
    2. beam balance.
    3. see-saw.
    4. wheelbarrow.
28. Which one of the following groups of foods is suitable for a child suffering from kwashiorkor?
    1. Ugali, milk and spinach.
    2. Mangoes, cabbages and oranges.
    3. Beans, fish and chicken.
    4. Chapati, porridge and bread.
29. Which one of the following is the brightest planet?
    1. Mars.
    2. Venus.
    3. Mercury.
    4. Jupiter.
30. Which one of the following is a use of water in the farm?
    1. Fishing.
    2. Mixing chemicals.
    3. Irrigation.
    4. Watering animals.
31. Which one of the following groups of materials are all magnetic?
    1. Aluminium, zinc.
    2. Silver, copper.
    3. Nickel, cobalt.
    4. Brass, carbon.
32. Which one of the following sexually transmitted diseases is caused by virus?
    1. Gonorrhoea.
    2. Syphilis.
    3. Chancroid.
    4. Genital herpes.
33. Which one of the following substances when mixed will form a uniform layer?
    1. Oil and spirit.
    2. Milk and spirit.
    3. Water and diesel.
    4. Paraffin and water.
34. The diagram below shows a process during reproduction in human beings.
    
    The process above takes place in the
    1. ovary.
    2. uterus.
    3. oviduct.
    4. vagina.
35. Which one of the following parasites is found in the small intestines of sheep and goats?
    1. Roundworms.
    2. Flukes.
    3. Hookworms.
    4. Lungworms.
36. Which part of a flower exposes it to the agents of pollination?
    1. Petals.
    2. Sepals.
    3. Filaments.
    4. Stalk.
37. Which pair of crops below will provide similar nutrients when taken?
    1. Cereals and oil crops.
    2. Legumes and fibre crops.
    3. Fruits and tubers.
    4. Beverages and legumes.
38. Below is a food chain in a certain habitat:
    Maize → hens → mongoose → wild dog
    Which one of the following feeding organisms will belong to the same group as a rat?
    1. Maize.
    2. Hens.
    3. Mongoose.
    4. Wild dog.
39. Which one of the following processes takes place immediately after ovulating?
    1. Implantation.
    2. Reproduction.
    3. Fusion.
    4. Menstruation.
40. Which one of the following shows the correct order of the flow of urine in the human body?
    1. Bladder → urethra → ureter
    2. Urethra → ureter → urethra
    3. Ureter → urethra → bladder
    4. Ureter → bladder → urethra
41. The diagram below shows a simple home made filter.
    
    The part labelled J represents
    
    1. pebbles.
    2. coarse sand.
    3. charcoal.
    4. fine sand.
42. When conducting an experiment on soil drainage, which one of the following need not be the same?
    1. Amount of water.
    2. Amount of soil.
    3. Type of soil.
    4. Size of funnels.
43. The following are the functions of the placenta except
    1. providing food for the growing embryo. 
    2. allowing exchange of oxygen and carbondioxide.
    3. facilitating transfer of digested food.
    4. facilitating transfer of waste products.
44. The diagram below shows the female reproductive system.
    
    Which of the labelled parts produces sex cells?
    1. P
    2. Q
    3. R
    4. S
45. Which one of the following excretory products is removed by all the excretory organs?
    1. Carbondioxide.
    2. Salts.
    3. Urea.
    4. Excess water.
46. When making a liquid thermometer, a narrow tube is used in order to
    1. read easily.
    2. make the liquid expand faster.
    3. make smaller changes in temperature.
    4. reduce evaporation.
47. The chart below shows a simple classification of plants.
    
    Which one of the following correctly shows examples of the plants labelled in the chart?
    

    	W	X	Y
    A.	Maize	fern	cactus
    B.	Beans	algae	toadstool
    C.	Cactus	acacia	mushroom
    D.	Banana	cactus	puffball

48. The purpose of adding wood ash when preparing compost manure is to
    1. speed up the rate of decay.
    2. introduce decomposers.
    3. ensure uniform decay.
    4. supply additional nutrients.
49. Heat from the sun reaches the earth's surface through
    1. conduction.
    2. convection.
    3. radiation.
    4. heating.
50. Which one of the following substances can evaporate or freeze depending on temperature change?
    1. Steam.
    2. Ice.
    3. Water.
    4. Oxygen.

MARKING SCHEME

1. B
2. A
3. C
4. C
5. C
6. D
7. D
8. A
9. B
10. B
11. D
12. B
13. D
14. B
15. D
16. B
17. D
18. A
19. D
20. A
21. C
22. D
23. B
24. B
25. C
26. D
27. B
28. C
29. B
30. C
31. C
32. D
33. B
34. C
35. C
36. A
37. A
38. B
39. C
40. C
41. D
42. C
43. A
44. C
45. D
46. C
47. B
48. D
49. C
50. B

INSHA    

Andika insha ya kusisimua ukimalizia kwa maneno yafuatayo:

.....................................................................................................Baada ya kisa hicho cha kuatua moyo, wanakijiji waligundua umuhimu wa kushirikiana.

 MASWALI

Soma vifungu vifuatavyo. Vina nafasi 1 mpaka 15. Kwa kila nafasi umepewa Chagua jibu lifaalo zaidi kati ya yale uliyopewa.

Wanasiasa wa humu nchini sasa wametulia utadhani ___1___. Kila mwanajamii anasubiri kwa hamu na hamumu ___2___ kwa miradi mbalimbali waliyokuwa ___3___na ___4___ wao mwaka jana. Ni kweli kuwa kunao wale ambao wataziheshimu na ___5___ ahadi zao. ___6____, kunao wale ambao hata kuonekana kwao katika maeneo wanayoyawakilisha kutakuwa sawa na kuliona ___7___ hadi miaka mingine ___8___ ipite.

Mchuano wa kombe la dunia mwaka uliopita ___9___ mataifa mengi ya humu barani na ya ___10___ Timu nyingi zilionyesha umahiri huku makocha wao wakizitolea maagizo. Hakuna kocha aliyetaka timu yake ___11___kwani___12___. Kipute hicho kilichoandaliwa nchini Qatar kilidhihirisha kuwa mchezo wa ___13___ huwa na mashabiki wengi zaidi. Hivi ni kutokana na ___14___ mkuu uliokuwa uwanjani. Mwisho wa kinyang'anyiro hicho, wanasoka wa Ajentina ___15___ washindi.

Kutoka swali la 16 hadi 30. jibu kulingana na maagizo. 

16. Mwanafunzi mkaidi alionywa ingawa hakusikia. Maneno yaliyopigiwa mistari ni 
    1. kiwakilishi, kiunganishi.
    2. kiunganishi, kiwakilishi.
    3. kivumishi, kiunganishi. 
    4. nomino, kiwakilishi.
17. Chagua sentensi iliyo katika wakati uliopo.
    1. Mzazi alimnunulia mwanawe sare mpya.
    2. Bwana Ngao amelilima shamba lote.
    3. Wanafunzi hawaimbi darasani.
    4. Hatutasafiri hadi wiki ijayo.
18. Bata amemdonoa duduvule katika hali ya wingi ni
    
    1. mabata wamewadonoa duduvule. 
    2. bata wamewadonoa duduvule. 
    3. mabata wamewadonoa maduduvule.
    4. bata wamewadonoa maduduvule.
19. Mgomba huzaa ndizi, nao mbuni huzaa
    1. mikahawa.
    2. buni.
    3. mbuni
    4. karakara.
20. Sehemu ya mwili inayosafirisha damu ni
    
    1. moyo.
    2. figo
    3. mifupa.
    4. mishipa.
21. Chagua orodha ya vimilikishi pekee. 
    1. wa, cha, vya, la.
    2. huyu, hao, kile, huo. 
    3. yangu, kwangu, lake, lao.
    4. piga, cheza, lima, simama.
22. Kamilisha tashbihi:
    Wanafunzi hawa ni wasiri kama
    1. kaburi.
    2. giza
    3. kondoo.
    4. mchana.
23. Sungura ni kwa kitungule. Bata ni kwa
    1. kisuse.
    2. kisui.
    3. kiyoyo.
    4. kifaranga.
24. Kanusha sentensi ifuatayo:
    Ungekuwa mgonjwa ungetibiwa.
    1. Hungekuwa mgonjwa hungetibiwa.
    2. Hangekuwa mgonjwa hangetibiwa.
    3. Usingekuwa mgonjwa usingetibiwa.
    4. Usingalikuwa mgonjwa usingalitibiwa.
25. Watoto 12 222 kwa maneno ni watoto 
    1. kumi na wawili elfu, mia mbili ishirini na wawili.
    2. kumi na mbili elfu, mia mbili ishirini na mbili.
    3. kumi na wawili elfu, mia mbili ishirini na mbili.
    4. kumi na mbili elfu, mia mbili ishirini na wawili.
26. Ni ipi hapa ni zana ya vita?
    1. Kayamba.
    2. Firimbi
    3. Nyambizi.
    4. Mkuki.
27. Akina Pendo hupenda kujifunika 
    1. tiki.
    2. gubigubi.
    3. chekwachekwa
    4. mkikimkiki
28. Tumia kiulizi pi kwa usahihi.
    Manukato ya mama ni
    1. ipi?
    2. yapi?
    3. zipi?
    4. upi?
29. Tumia-ingine na -enyewe kwa usahihi.
    Ubao ________________ ulianguka sakafuni ________________.
    1. mwingine, wenyewe
    2. mwingine, yenyewe
    3. wengine, penyewe
    4. nyingine, wenyewe
30. Je, ni neno gani lililo na silabi changamano?
    1. Mbwa
    2. Mbu
    3. Mtu
    4. Mbweha

Soma kifungu kisha ujibu maswali 31 hadi 40.   

Ilikuwa Jumamosi yenye baridi shadidi na umande uliotanda. Mashaka aliamua kuingia afisini. Aliingia bila woga wala wasiwasi, utoke wapi? Kilichomkaa akilini ni wingi wa maswali. Jambo usilolijua ni kama usiku wa giza. Moja alikuwa na hakika nalo: hakuna tamaa ya heri.

Alipoingia, alisimama mkabala na mwenye afisi, "Shikamoo bwana," akamwamkia. Aliyemwamkia hakutikisika wala kugeuka ila aliinamia jalada fulani akawa anatafakari au anasoma kitu fulani. Lo! Ishara mbaya kwa Mashaka ambaye alijikuta katikati ya chumba pasi na mwenzi wala mwenyeji. Akawa mgeni katika chumba ambacho zamani alizoea kukiingia. Alimtumbulia macho baba yake na kushangazwa na tabia yake ya kujitia hamnazo.

Hali katika afisi ilimkumbusha Mashaka siku zile alipokuwa shuleni. Kulikuwa na mwalimu mmoja mkorofi ambaye kila alipopelekewa hesabu kusahihisha, akiwa na kazi yake ya kusoma au kuandika mezani, ungesimama kwa muda mrefu kabla hajalipokea daftari lako kulisahihisha. Kisha alipolichukua kulisahihisha, ikatokea kuwa umekosea hata hesabu moja tu, basi huenda asingaligusa kabisa daftari lako. Hayo ya mwalimu yalikuwa afadhali. Bwana Juba hakumtambua hata mwanawe wa kumzaa.

Bwana Juba aliinama kwa muda jicho lake kali nyuma ya miwani-miwani iliyosimama juu ya uti wa pua-iliyoenda sawia na karatasi alizozifunua kwenye jalada. Naam, ukweli ni kuwa, Mashaka alizubaa zubezube na kuduwaa waa, asijue la kufanya. Alisimama mbele ya Bwana Juba kama mlingoti, hatikisiki, huku mikono yake kaifumbata na huku akimkagua Bwana Juba ambaye alikuwa kamvalia mwenziwe miwani ya mbao kama vile hakuwa mle afisini..

Mashaka alichukua nafasi hiyo kuukagua utukufu wa bwana yule, nao si haba! Isitoshe, jinsi afisi yenyewe ilivyopambwa, makochi ya kisasa yenye matakia manene ya kahawia, katikati meza ndogo iliyochutama na kubeba bakuli kubwa la maua, vitabu, majarida na magazeti machache yaliyopangwa hapo kwa madoido. Na matendegu je? Yalisimama tisti kwenye zulia jekundu lenye mapaku ya maua ya kutupiatupia ya manjano ambalo lilifunika sakafu nzima.

31. Mashaka aliingia afisini akiwa
    
    1. ameaibika.
    2. na woga.
    3. jasiri.
    4. dhaifu.
32. Kulingana na ufahamu, mwenye afisi alikuwa nani?
    
    1. Mashaka.
    2. Ndugu wa Mashaka.
    3. Baba wa Mashaka.
    4. Rafiki wa Mashaka.
33. Jambo usilolijua ni kama usiku wa giza  ni
    1. nahau.
    2. methali.
    3. istiara.
    4. tashbihi.
34. Ni jambo gani halikuwa la kawaida? Mashaka
    
    1. kupuuzwa na mwenye afisi.
    2. kutambuliwa na mwenye afisi.
    3. kuanza kuizoea afisi.
    4. kumpata asiyemjua afisini.
35. Kulingana na Mashaka, mwalimu wao wa Hesabu alikuwa
    
    1. mvumilivu.
    2. mkorofi.
    3. nadhifu.
    4. makini.
36. Mashaka alipojaribu kumwamkia mwenye afisi,
    
    1. Bwana Juba alikuwa akilala.
    2. kulikuwa na wageni afisini.
    3. Bwana Juba alikuwa ameinamia jalada fulani.
    4. kulikuwa na kazi nyingi zilizokuwa zikifanywa.
37. Mashaka aliduwaa kwa sababu
    1. Bwana Juba alikuwa amehuzunika.
    2. hakuna aliyekuwa akiongea naye. 
    3. uchafu ulikuwa umetapakaa afisini. 
    4. alikuwa amepoteza matumaini.
38. Yaelekea Mashaka alienda afisini kufanya nini?
    
    1. Kuonana na wafanyakazi wake.
    2. Kuongea na Bwana Juba.
    3. Kumaliza kazi yake.
    4. Kumjulia hali baba yake.
39. Neno zulia kama lilivyotumika linaleta dhana ya
    1. kitambaa cha kupambia dirisha.
    2. aina ya kiti.
    3. kataza mtu kufanya jambo.
    4. tandiko la sakafuni.
40. Afisi inayozungumziwa ilikuwa na
    1. viti vikuukuu.
    2. viti visivyo na thamani.
    3. pesa nyingi.
    4. viti vyenye thamani.

Soma kifungu kisha ujibu maswali 41 hadi 50.   

Utalii ni kati ya sekta muhimu sana zinazochangia ukuaji wa uchumi katika taifa la Kenya. Tunajivunia utalii, hali ya kusafiri kutoka kwako au kwenu ili kwenda kwingine kujifurahisha nafsi au hata kujifunza mambo mageni. Kuna aina mbili za utalii; utalii wa kitaifa na ule wa kimataifa. Wapo watalii wanaozuru nchi zao kujiburudisha na kujielimisha na wengine wanaovuka mipaka ya nchi zao.

Humu nchini, Mola ametutunukia mengi, mengi zaidi ya nchi nyingi duniani, hata ingawa kila nchi inacho angalau cha kujivunia. Kivutio kikuu humu nchini ni tamaduni zetu na wanyamapori. Wanyama hawa ni fahari ya nchi yetu. Wamechangia pakubwa katika ujenzi wa taifa kutokana na pesa za kigeni. Baadhi ya vivutio vingine ni maliasili mengi tuliyonayo.

Wanyama tunaojivunia nchini ni pamoja na twiga, simba, ndovu, kifaru, viboko na kadhalika. Wanyama hawa hususan huwa wanatengewa sehemu maalumu. Sehemu hizi aghalabu humilikiwa na serikali. Ili kuingia na kuwaona wanyama hawa, mtu hulazimika kulipa kiwango fulani cha pesa. Hakuna cha bwerere eti!

Licha ya kuwa wanyama hawa huletea nchi yetu sifa na faida chungu nzima, wao husababisha madhara pia. Mara kwa mara, simba wamekuwa wakitoroka mbugani. Madhara huwa wazi na huwa hayakadiriki. Simba na raia hupoteza maisha yao huku mifugo wakiwa hatarini kwani hufanywa kitoweo. Ndovu na viboko hawajaachwa nyuma. Wao huyavamia mashamba na kusababisha uharibifu mkubwa. Hali hii huleta njaa. Licha ya hali hii, tunalo jukumu la kuwalinda wanyama hawa. Tusiwe majangili tunaotafuta pembe za ndovu, na iwapo utakutana na mmoja, basi usikose kumripoti. Unahimizwa kupiga ripoti katika kituo cha polisi kilicho karibu au kupiga simu kwenda nambari 999. Moto unaowashwa misituni pia ukomeshwe. Vilevile, ukulima unaoendelezwa mbugani pia ukomeshwe. Sote tuungane pamoja tuwalinde wanyama wetu.

41. Kulingana na aya ya kwanza,
    
    1. utalii ndiyo sekta ya pekee inayokuza uchumi.
    2. utalii haukuzi sana uchumi.
    3. wakenya wengi aghalabu hawajivunii utalii.
    4. utalii ni mojawapo ya sekta zinazokuza uchumi.
42. Kulingana na kifungu,
    
    1. watalii ni wazungu wanaokuja nchini. 
    2. watalii hutoka nje na ndani ya nchi. 
    3. watalii daima huleta tabia mbaya nchini.
    4. hatuna mengi nchini ya kutalii.
43. Taarifa yasema kuwa kivutio kikuu cha watalii ni
    
    1. maliasili na tamaduni.
    2. wanyamapori na tamaduni.
    3. wanyamapori na maliasili.
    4. tamaduni pekee.
44. Mwandishi anaposema kuwa wanyama watengewe sehemu maalumu, bila shaka anarejelea
    
    1. mbuga.
    2. nyika.
    3. misitu.
    4. pori.
45. Neno chungu kama lilivyotumika katika ufahamu lina maana ya
    
    1. chombo cha kupikia.
    2. inayouma.
    3. isiyo tamu.
    4. nyingi.
46. Ni methali gani inayofaa kutoa mukhtasari wa mwanzo wa aya ya nne?
    
    1. Hakuna masika yasiyokuwa na mbu. 
    2. Zimwi likujualo halikuli likakuisha. 
    3. Uzuri wa mkakasi ndani kipande cha mti.
    4. Mtaka unda haneni.
47. Hasara zinazosababishwa na wanyama si pamoja na
    
    1. kuvamia mashamba.
    2. kuangamiza mifugo.
    3. kusababisha vifo.
    4. kubuni nafasi za ajira.
48. ...pembe za ndovu ni sawa na
    1. vipusa. 
    2. tembo. 
    3. mikonga.
    4. mabori.
49. Mwandishi asema kuwa
    
    1. wanyama wanaovamia mashamba wanaweza kuuawa.
    2. ili kuwaona wanyama, mtalii hulipa kiingilio.
    3. nchi nyingine hazina kivutio chochote cha watalii.
    4. mifugo huwala wanyama wanaowavamia.
50. Mwisho kabisa, msemaji anamalizia kwa
    1. lawama.
    2. kero
    3. ombi.
    4. shime.

MARKING SCHEME

1. B
2. B
3. A
4. D
5. D
6. C
7. B
8. A
9. B
10. A
11. C
12. D
13. D
14. D
15. A
16. C
17. C
18. A
19. B
20. D
21. C
22. A
23. C
24. C
25. D
26. D
27. B
28. B
29. A
30. D
31. C
32. C
33. B
34. A
35. B
36. C
37. B
38. C
39. D
40. D
41. D
42. B
43. B
44. A
45. D
46. A
47. D
48. D
49. B
50. D

COMPOSITION  

The following is the beginning of a story. Complete it in your own words making it as interesting as possible.

I knew I could do anything I put my mind to. last holidays I decided to ................................

QUESTIONS

Read the passage below. It contains blank spaces numbered 1 to 15. For each blank space, choose the best answer from the choice.

It was as ___1___ as usual at the bank. ___2___had John finished his transaction than he heard a commotion coming from the other side of the room. Suddenly, a man dressed___3___ all black with a mask on, ___4___ into the bank brandishing a gun. He ___5___ everyone to get down on the floor and ___6___their valuables.

The bank customers were in a state of ___7___, some were crying and others were trying to hide___8___ the desks. John's heart was pounding as he9 on the floor.

The robber then jumped___10___ the counter, and commanded the cashiers to surrender ___11___ the money they had. ___12___ disobeyed. The robber put all the cash into a bag he had brought with him. As the robber was about to___13___ his escape, a security guard who was on duty entered the bank. The robber tried to point his gun at the guard but it was___14___late. He managed to disarm him and hold him ___15___ the police arrived.

In questions 16 to 18, choose the word that means the same as the underlined words.

16. The new teacher doesn't put up with poor performance.
    1. understand
    2. tolerate
    3. condemn
    4. encourage
17. The villagers managed to extinguish the fire.
    1. put down
    2. put off
    3. put away
    4. put out
18. The twins obviously take after their mother.
    1. admire
    2. follow
    3. resemble
    4. imitate

In questions 19 and 20, choose the best alternative to complete the sentences.    

19. It was _________________ hot to stand in the sun.
    1. so
    2. rather
    3. too
    4. very
20. He prefers chicken stew
    
    1. to beef stew.
    2. than beef stew.
    3. for beef stew.
    4. but beef stew.

In questions 21 and 22, select the correct arrangement to make sensible paragraphs.

21.  
    1. Moreover, a strict routine and discipline to practice is mandatory. 
    2. One must be willing to be pushed beyond their limits.
    3. To succeed in sports is a dream for many but a reality for few. 
    4. In the end, the mind and the body get into the right shape for success.
       1. (iii), (ii), (i), (iv) 
       2. (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
       3. (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
       4. (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
22.  
    1. Maria and I have been great friends.
    2. We met last week for the first time in four years and it was like we never separated.
    3. It wasn't difficult to connect due to our shared interest in music.
    4. As fate would have it, we separated in the fourth Grade.
       1. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
       2. (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
       3. (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
       4. (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

In questions 23 to 25. select the best alternative to fill the blank spaces.

23. We bought _____________________ dolls
    
    1. two other new small plastic 
    2. two other small new plastic
    3. two small new plastic other
    4. other two new small plastic
24. The _________________ pit was dug for rubbish disposal.
    
    1. feet-ten
    2. ten-feet
    3. ten-foot
    4. foot-ten
25. Mbugua was exempted _________________________ doing the work because he was ill.
    1. off
    2. from
    3. at
    4. with

Read the passage below and answer questions 26 to 38.

Whatever it was that prompted me to go to Singapore is very trivial. In fact it was an afterthought that I didn't really plan for. The most important thing was that I learnt the meaning of loneliness and the fear of getting into the unknown. I should say that it did me a world of good.

On the twenty-fifth of February this year, I was crossing into another foreign country to "seek my fortune". With the passport in my hand, I glanced over the number of stamps on the page. Suddenly, a feeling of fear overcame me. How in the world am I going to find my way in Singapore? I knew I could not retreat because I had taken up the job of a home-teacher! And all my life, my interest had never been in teaching!

So with a brave heart, I ventured into the Lion City. I was first assigned a home in Tiong, a place I had never heard of before. I consoled myself that it was difficult to get lost here, especially with the efficient bus service. When I finally reached my destination, my expectations were ruined when I was confronted with the buildings that looked the same. The flats stood up like great giants looking down at me, perhaps laughing their heads off at my helplessness. As it was already seven o'clock in the evening, I walked aimlessly in the area. People, young and old, males and females came and went, but they seemed to be more in a hurry than I was. Where they were going, I had not the faintest idea. The careless attitude in them made me sick. There I stood, and I would stand there forever if I did not venture to take the initiative myself. I picked up my courage and walked slowly to the next block.

Rather unwillingly, I asked a passing boy about the whereabouts of the assigned home. He pointed to a block nearby. Feeling relieved, I walked towards the block and realized that it was really the correct one. I hurriedly walked towards the nearest lift. Before long, I was on my way to the seventh floor. At long last, I reached my destination. For me then, happiness was having found the place! I looked at my watch. It showed just a few minutes after eight. Now I realized the one-hour of fruitless search in the dark had seemed like eternity!

Now not only do I know what loneliness really is. Now I know what fear is like. Fear and loneliness only exist when you are in the unknown. When the unknown is opened to you, automatically, fear and loneliness vanish.

26. According to the first paragraph, the writer 
    1. had really wanted to go to Singapore.
    2. had a long desire to visit Singapore. 
    3. had elaborate plan for the visit to Singapore.
    4. did not put much thought into the visit to Singapore.
27. What does the phrase seek my fortune mean?
    
    1. Looking for a job.
    2. Finding a means of livelihood. 
    3. Trying to survive alone.
    4. Gaining more experience.
28. We can conclude that the writer felt fear because
    
    1. he did not know how to find his way in the new country.
    2. he did not have anything to do in Singapore.
    3. he was already feeling the loneliness. 
    4. it was the first time to travel outside his country.
29. The writer could not get back because he had
    
    1. nowhere else to go.
    2. already crossed the border.
    3. already taken up a teaching job.
    4. started home-teaching already.
30. From the passage, we can say that the writer 
    1. had been teaching in this country.
    2. had never been keen on teaching. 
    3. found teaching an interesting career.
    4. was looking forward to home-teaching.
31. Tiong was
    
    1. a place in Lion City.
    2. a city next to Lion City.
    3. familiar to the writer.
    4. a school where the writer worked.
32. The writer thought it was not easy to lose his way in Tiong because
    1. it was a small area.
    2. the area had a good bus service.
    3. the area had many buses.
    4. the writer had visited the area before.
33. What confronted the writer the moment he got to Tiong? The
    1. houses looked very big.
    2. houses had similar colours.
    3. houses appeared the same. 
    4. area was very new to him.
34. It is true to sat that the
    1. writer was in a hurry like everyone else.
    2. town people walked towards the same direction.
    3. town people did not care about the writer
    4. people in the town were just roaming the streets.
35. The word aimlessly as used in the passage implies that the writer was walking
    1. leisurely to pass the time.
    2. to no particular destination. 
    3. slowly and lazily.
    4. hurriedly to his destination.
36. What did the writer decide to do to find the assigned-home?
    1. He asked everyone at the nearby blocks. 
    2. He asked his way from a young boy.
    3. He looked around and saw it.
    4. One of his students pointed him the way.
37. We can conclude that when the writer reached his destination, he felt
    1. surprised.
    2. amazed
    3. relaxed.
    4. relieved.
38. Which of the following is the most suitable title for the passage?
    1. Facing the fear of the unknown.
    2. Travelling to Singapore.
    3. Lost in Tiong.
    4. Fear and loneliness.

Read the following passage and answer questions 39 to 50.   

Self-esteem is a crucial aspect of one's mental and emotional well-being. It is the belief and confidence one has in their own abilities and self-worth. A person with healthy self-esteem feels positive about themselves, their abilities and their future. They trust their own abilities and feel capable of handling the challenges that life throws their way. However, when self-esteem is low, it can lead to negative thoughts and feelings, such as self-doubt, self-criticism, and a lack of confidence. This can contribute to mental health issues such as depression and anxiety.

Low self-esteem can manifest in various ways, such as constantly seeking validation from others, avoiding new experiences and opportunities or feeling inadequate in social situations. This can have a detrimental impact on one's relationships, career and overall life satisfaction. Building and maintaining a healthy self-esteem is essential for living a fulfilling life.

There are several ways to improve self-esteem. One of the most important is to practice self- compassion. Treating oneself with kindness and understanding is essential for building self-esteem. When working or studying, set realistic goals and celebrate small successes. This builds one's confidence and boosts self-esteem.

Surrounding oneself with positive and supportive people can provide a sense of validation and encouragement, which can help to build self-esteem. Engaging in activities and hobbies that bring joy and a sense of accomplishment can also be beneficial for self-esteem. Additionally, changing negative thought patterns and learning to challenge limiting beliefs can help to improve self-esteem. Finally, practising mindfulness and self-reflection can help one to understand themselves better, which can lead to a deeper sense of self-worth and confidence.

It is important to remember that self-esteem is not a fixed trait and can fluctuate over time. It is an ongoing process of self-awareness, self-care and self-improvement. Seeking help from a therapist or counsellor can be beneficial in addressing and improving self-esteem. With effort and determination, anyone can improve their self-esteem and live a happier, more fulfilling life.

39. Self-esteem emphasizes on the belief and confidence in
    
    1. personal abilities and self-worth. 
    2. appearance end self-worth 
    3. intelligence and own abilities 
    4. one's happiness and self-worth.
40. A person with a healthy self-esteem should be
    
    1. pessimistic.
    2. uncertain
    3. doubtful.
    4. optimistic.
41. All the following statements are true about self-esteem. Which one is not?!t 
    1. helps one to deal with challenges 
    2. makes one be sure of one's abilities
    3. makes one proud of past success.
    4. makes one certain of one's future.
42. How can one know that people have low self-esteem? They
    
    1. doubt and criticize themselves.
    2. feel positive about themselves.
    3. have some confidence.
    4. do away with negative feelings.
43. Depression and anxiety are caused by 
    1. a healthy self-esteem.
    2. mental diseases.
    3. anger and stress.
    4. a low self-esteem.
44. The word constantly means that same as
    1. continually.
    2. sometimes
    3. rarely.
    4. occasionally.
45. A poor self-esteem can negatively impact all the following except one's
    
    1. fulfillment.
    2. concentration.
    3. occupation.
    4. relationships.
46. Self-compassion is treating oneself with
    1. understanding and criticism. 
    2. kindness and care.
    3. satisfaction and understanding.
    4. understanding and kindness.
47. ...realistic goals are goals that 
    1. are easy to achieve.
    2. one is able to achieve. 
    3. are difficult to achieve.
    4. everybody has set.
48. Friends can boost one's self-esteem by
    1. validating and encouraging us.
    2. setting realistic goals for us.
    3. celebrating small successes with us. 
    4. having confidence in their abilities.
49. Practising mindfulness and self-reflection helps one to
    
    1. change negative thoughts. 
    2. remove limiting beliefs.
    3. understand oneself better.
    4. have a sense of fulfillment.
50. It is the writer's opinion that
    1. everybody has a high self-esteem. 
    2. it is very difficult to develop self-esteem.
    3. one's self-esteem remains constant. 
    4. anybody can develop high self-esteem.

MARKING SCHEME

1. A
2. A
3. C
4. A
5. D
6. A
7. B
8. D
9. A
10. C
11. A
12. B
13. A
14. D
15. C
16. B
17. D
18. C
19. C
20. A
21. A
22. C
23. B
24. C
25. B
26. D
27. B
28. A
29. C
30. B
31. A
32. B
33. C
34. C
35. B
36. B
37. D
38. A
39. A
40. D
41. C
42. B
43. D
44. A
45. C
46. D
47. B
48. A
49. C
50. D

QUESTIONS   

1. What is 6 409 586 written in words?
   1. Six million, four hundred and ninety thousand, five hundred and eighty six. 
   2. Six million, forty nine thousand, five hundred and eighty six.
   3. Six million, four hundred and nine thousand, five hundred and eighty six. 
   4. Sixty four million, nine thousand, five hundred and eighty six.
2. Round off 18 568 379 to the nearest millions.
   
   1. 18 600 000
   2. 19 000 000
   3. 18 570 000
   4. 20 000 000
3. What is the place value of digit 1 in the product of 38 and 27?
   
   1. Tens of thousands.
   2. Thousands.
   3. Hundreds.
   4. Tens.
4. What is the value of:
   16 (42 − 39) + 36 ÷ 3?
             4 x 3
   1. 3
   2. 2
   3. 8
   4. 5
5. Which one of the following statements is true about numbers that are divisible by 11?
   
   1. If the last three digits are divisible by eleven.
   2. If the sum of the digits is a multiple of eleven.
   3. If the difference of the sum of the alternate digits is a multiple of eleven. 
   4. If the last two digits are divisible by eleven.
6. What is the total value of digit 8 in the number 9 785 246?
   
   1. Eighty thousands 
   2. Eight million
   3. Eight thousands
   4. Eight hundred
7. Which of the following numbers is divisible by both 9 and 6?
   1. 45 649
   2. 41 059
   3. 42 369
   4. 47 304
8. Three bells ring at intervals of 15 minutes, 24 minutes and 30 minutes. After how long will the bells ring together again?
   1. 180 minutes
   2. 120 minutes
   3. 60 minutes
   4. 90 minutes
9. Martin sold eggs at a certain shop from 10" January to 10 March, 2020. For how many days altogether did he sell the eggs?
   1. 62 days
   2. 59 days
   3. 60 days
   4. 61 days
10. Flour is packed in 2.5kg packets. If the weight of the flour in the packet is increased by 20%, what would be the new weight of the packet?
    1. 3 kg
    2. 1.5 kg
    3. 3.125 kg
    4. 4.5 kg
11. What is ⁵/₈(24m+32n) + ³/₇(21m − 14n) expressed in its simplest form?
    1. 24m + 26n
    2. 24m − 26n
    3. 24m + 14n
    4. 24 − 14n
12. What is the next number in the number pattern below?
    169, 150, 133, 120, 109,_________
    1. 100
    2. 102
    3. 98
    4. 105
13. The area of a square seed bed is 361 square metres. What is the length of one side of the seed bed?
    1. 21m
    2. 11m
    3. 91m
    4. 19m
14. Musa bought the following items from a kiosk:
    18 tomatoes at 3 tomatoes per sh. 20
    1½kg of onions @ sh.40.00
    5 avocadoes @ sh. 20.00
    3 piles of carrots for sh. 100
    He paid for the items using a sh. 500 note. |2 What balance did he get?
    1. Sh. 120.00
    2. Sh. 240.00
    3. Sh. 380.00
    4. Sh. 160.00
15. Otieno packed 120kg of sugar into ¾ kg packets. How many packets did he obtain?
    1. 90
    2. 150
    3. 160
    4. 240
16. In the figure below, lines AB, BC, CD and AD are equal. AB is parallel to DC and AD is parallel to BC.
    
    Which one of the following is not a property of the quadrilateral above?
    1. Diagonals bisect the interior angles equally.
    2. The sum of interior angles adds up to 180°
    3. Diagonals are varied and bisect each other at 90°
    4. Opposite angles are equal.
17. What is the square root of 3³³/₆₄?
    1. 1³/₈
    2. 3³/₈
    3. 2⁷/₈
    4. 1⁷/₈
18. The area of the trapezium ABCD shown below is 164cm²
    
    What is the length of line DC?
    1. 26cm
    2. 24cm
    3. 16cm
    4. 18cm
19. Wanjiku bought x oranges and Wanjiru bought 2x + 3 oranges. Muthoni bought twice as many oranges as both Wanjiku and Wanjiru. Which one of the following expressions shows the total number of oranges they bought? 
    1. 9x + 6
    2. 9x − 6
    3. 9x + 9
    4. 9x − 9
20. The perimeter of a square garden is 48 metres. What is the area of the garden in square metres?
    1. 2 304m²
    2. 144m²
    3. 234m²
    4. 288m²
21. A bus left Busia for Nairobi at 2035 hours on Wednesday. The journey took 11 hours 45 minutes. At what time and day did it reach Nairobi?
    1. 2020 hrs, Wednesday 
    2. 2020 hrs, Thursday
    3. 0820hrs, Wednesday 
    4. 0820hrs, Thursday
22. What is the value off in the equation below?
    2(2t − 5) = 3(3t −15)
    1. 7
    2. 3
    3. 9
    4. 5
23. What is the value of angle a in the figure below?
    
    1. 140°
    2. 100°
    3. 150°
    4. 110°
24. Karisa had the following amounts of money in his saving box.
    

    Value of the note	50	100	200	500
    No. of notes	32	18	16	4

    How much money did he have altogether in the saving box?
    1. Sh. 6 800
    2. Sh. 8,600
    3. Sh. 5 400
    4. Sh. 10 200
25. Which one of the following sets of measurements will form a right angled triangle when drawn?
    1. 5cm 12cm, 17cm
    2. 8cm, 40cm, 41cm 
    3. 7cm, 24cm, 25cm
    4. 7cm, 15cm, 17cm
26. Chebet and Cheptoo shared the profit from the sale of a cow in the ratio 3:5. If the difference in the profit was sh. 18 000, how much profit did Cheptoo receive?
    1. Sh. 27 000 
    2. Sh. 72 000
    3. Sh. 45 000
    4. Sh. 9 000
27. Construct triangle PNM in which line MN=7cm, angle MNP 50° and angle NPM=70°. Draw a circle that touches points P, N and M. Measure the diameter of the circle.
    1. 3.8cm
    2. 1.1cm
    3. 1.9cm
    4. 7.6cm
28. What is the total value of digit 2 in the decimal number 4.3286?
    1. ²/₁₀
    2. ²/₁₀₀
    3. ²/₁₀₀₀
    4. ²/₁₀₀₀₀
29. What is ¹⁸/₂₅ as a percentage?
    1. 18%
    2. 60%
    3. 72%
    4. 85%
30. In a certain month, a businessman made a profit of sh. 16 000. In the following month, his profit decreased to sh. 14 000. Calculate the percentage decrease in the profit.
    1. 12.5%
    2. 20%
    3. 88.5%
    4. 25%
31. Juma's bicycle wheel has a radius of 28cm. How many revolutions will it make to cover a distance of 6.16km?
    1. 35
    2. 350
    3. 35 000
    4. 3 500
32. The diagram below represents Rono's plot of land in the shape of a parallelogram.
    
    What is the area of the land in hectares?
    1. 2.88
    2. 1.92
    3. 0.96
    4. 1.44
33. Lorna deposited sh. 240 000 at a financial institution that paid simple interest at the rate of 5% p.a. How much money had her money earned as interest at the end of three years?
    1. Sh. 276 000 
    2. Sh. 277 830
    3. Sh. 36 000
    4. Sh. 37 830
34. A closed cylindrical tank has a radius of 3.5 metres and a height of 2.5 metres. What is the surface area of the tank in square metres?
    1. 93.5
    2. 132
    3. 55
    4. 96.25
35. Mutai paid sh. 8 075 for a radio after getting a 5% discount on the marked price. What was the marked price of the radio?
    1. Sh. 8 500
    2. Sh. 7 650
    3. Sh. 425
    4. Sh. 8250
36. A milk factory was supplied with 4 000 litres of milk by some farmers. The milk was then packed into 2 -decilitre packets. How many packets were obtained?
    1. 200 000
    2. 200
    3. 2000
    4. 20.000
37. A rectangular fish pond measures 8 metres by 6.5 metres. All round is planted grass at an equal margin of 0.5 metres. Calculate the area under grass.
    1. 52m²
    2. 67.5m²
    3. 15.5m²
    4. 7.5m²
38. An open rectangular tank measures 5.2 metres long, 3.5 metres wide and 1.8 metres high. Calculate the surface area of the tank.
    1. 32.76 m²
    2. 49.52m²
    3. 18.72 m²
    4. 67.72 m²
39. What is the product of the edges and the vertices of an open rectangular prism?
    1. 48
    2. 60
    3. 72
    4. 96
40. A road measuring 3cm on a map has an actual distance of 4.5km. What is the scale used in drawing the map?
    1. 1:150 000
    2. 1:1 500 000
    3. 1:15 000
    4. 1:1 500
41. The stack of cubes below is incomplete.
    
    How many more cubes are required to make it complete?
    1. 96
    2. 180
    3. 84
    4. 69
42. Michelle covered a distance of 540km in 3 hours. What was her average speed in m/s?
    1. 180m/s
    2. 25m/s
    3. 90 m/s
    4. 50m/s
43. Eight men working at the same rate can complete digging in 12 hours. How many hours will it take six of the men to complete the same work?
    1. 9
    2. 16
    3. 18
    4. 10
44. In one month, a car agent sold 5 cars at sh. 800 000 each. He earns a 5% commission on the sale of a car. How much did he earn that month?
    1. Sh. 40 000
    2. Sh. 4 000 000
    3. Sh. 200 000
    4. Sh. 400 000
45. On a certain day, a shopkeeper sold 24kg of sugar, 15kg of maize flour, 9kg of wheat flour and 6kg of rice. If these items were to be represented in a pie chart, what angle would represent the mass of maize flour?
    1. 100°
    2. 40°
    3. 160°
    4. 60°
46. Kioko bought a TV set on hire purchase terms. He paid a deposit of sh. 2 500. The remaining amount was paid in 5 equal monthly instalments. He paid a total of sh. 10 200. How much was each monthly instalment? 
    1. Sh 1 450.00 
    2. Sh. 2 040.00
    3. Sh. 1 820.00
    4. Sh. 1 540.00 
47. A cylindrical tank has a height of 2.8 metres and a diameter of 2.1 metres. How many litres can it hold when full?
    1. 97 020ℓ
    2. 9 702ℓ
    3. 970.2ℓ
    4. 97.02ℓ
48. Kipruto is paid sh. 6 000 after working for 20 days. How much money would he be paid if he works for 14 days?
    1. Sh. 10 200
    2. Sh. 8 400
    3. Sh. 4 200
    4. Sh. 5-400
49. The mean of five number is 10. Four of the numbers are 8, 12, 6 and 13. What is the fifth number.
    1. 11
    2. 9
    3. 15
    4. 12

The bar graph below shows pairs of shoes with their sizes that were sold in a certain week.

50. How many pairs of shoes that were size 5 and above were sold in that week?
    1. 210
    2. 155
    3. 125
    4. 105

MARKING SCHEME

1. C
2. B
3. B
4. D
5. C
6. A
7. D
8. B
9. D
10. A
11. C
12. B
13. D
14. A
15. C
16. B
17. D
18. A
19. C
20. B
21. D
22. A
23. D
24. B
25. C
26. C
27. D
28. B
29. C
30. A
31. D
32. B
33. C
34. B
35. A
36. D
37. C
38. B
39. D
40. A
41. C
42. D
43. B
44. C
45. A
46. D
47. B
48. C
49. A
50. B